Discussion in 'Prequel Trilogy' started by SithStarSlayer, Feb 27, 2013.
Interesting theory. I wish there were an in-universe explanation though.
I always thought it was a reference to 666: number of Antichrist ("Anakin") or the devil ("Palpatine"). Lucas often uses names that carry certain ideas. The same with "princess", "knight" etc. PiettsHat's link is also interesting, though.
in-universe: I believe there are actually numerous potential emergency orders. Order 65 means the Chancellor has become a risk or something similar, IRRC.
Same with Samnz, I just thought it was symbolic. Evil/Satan is rising and overtaking the light, much like what Palpatine is doing to the Republic and the Jedi.
I always viewed "Order 66" the same way as "Blue 42" in football or "White Rabbit" in Jurassic Park or "All your base are belong to us" and the internet. It's a secret code phrase with meaning to a select group. Its innocuous nature is what makes it so good as a code phrase.
I am pretty sure there are several, maybe up to 150, IIRC.
You know, the Chancellor is killed, this happens, the Chancellor receives all power, etc. , etc.
That's certainly how certain EU novels had it.
Here's the actual wording of the Order.
Order 66: In the event of Jedi officers acting against the interests of the Republic, and after receiving specific orders verified as coming directly from the Supreme Commander (Chancellor), GAR commanders will remove those officers by lethal force, and command of the GAR will revert to the Supreme Commander (Chancellor) until a new command structure is established.
There were many Executive orders. Each one had a different number. For instance, Order 65 had to do with how to take power from the Chancellor if it was determined he was unfit to lead (i.e. if he went insane). I don't even think that Order 66 was kept secret from the Jedi. I think the Jedi knew of its existence and they understood that it was thought by others to be necessary to keep Jedi power in check. The Jedi accepted it because they never believed they would never had a reason to want to overthrow the Chancellor and the Republic.
Here's a link to extensive explanation of Order 66 on Wookieepedia: http://starwars.wikia.com/wiki/Order_66
Actually, I think the Republic Commando novels posit the idea that the Jedi were unaware of the Contingency Orders, or were at the very least unaware or didn't realize how strict and harsh Order 66 was.
Watching AOTC again last night and Watto reminded me that Clieg Lars BOUGHT Schmi.... Which made me wonder... Was this before or after they fell in love?
Did Clieg purchase Schmi the way Owen purchased the droids, haggling over costs, comparing her qualifications to the other slaves to help run the moisture farm, only later to fall in love with the servant living under his roof, freeing and marrying her?
Or did Clieg happen upon Schmi on one of his trips to Mos Espa and become hopelessly smitten with her and had to buy her so he could free and marry her?
Lucas didn't really talk about it, so the answers you seek can be found in the novel, "Tatooine Ghost". It's revealed that Cliegg had come to Mos Espa to do business and met Shmi when he visited Watto's shop. He kept coming back over a period of time and they started to fall in love. He had to buy her in order to secure her freedom, since Watto wasn't going to get the shaft again. Once that was done, Cliegg formally freed her of being a slave and they got married. The money that Watto had received wound up being lost to his growing gambling debt.
If I recall correctly, order 67 was Beef with Broccoli.
I'm an olbie but thought this the best place to ask this:
I was wondering what contribution Jonathan Hales made to the attack of the clones script. I can't find much behind the scenes details on this. I remember at the time leading up to the release of episode 2 thinking another contributor to the script would improve the dialogue from that which we got in episode 1 as Lucas is well known for not being very good with this area of script writing. So what if anything did Jonathan Hales bring to the script?
Thanks guys in advance.
Did The Jedi Take Away Their Own Independence?
It seems that the Jedi were only ever making things harder for themselves by making such strong bonds with the Senate. I understand that it makes sense for them to be linked to the government, but they pretty much follow it blindly throughout the trilogy and never really get a say in what they think is best.
I mean, even in TCW (especially the Ahsoka arc) we see how little control they have over their own order. Everything has to be angled towards what works best with the Senate.
So, was it that wise a decision for them to make such strong connections with the government? They basically took away their independence where they didn't need to. They could have still actively help the citizens of the galaxy and fight the battles they needed to.
Guarding the Republic was their 'raison d'être.' Anyway, it gave them legitimacy. Had they not been affiliated with the Republic they wouldn't have had a mandate to fill the role of police, mediators, negotiators, ambassadors etc.
As I said:
It makes sense for them to be linked to the government.
Just not to follow it blindly or allow it to influence all of their affairs.
You're correct. I mean, they always argued that they were suspicious about the Senate but they linked to them.
In the EU, the Ruusan Reformations (right after the last great defeat of the Sith 1000-odd years before the movie-era) were a big part of the Jedi giving up their independence - they basically became a government department (part of the Judicial department).
This was because, from the point of view of the Supreme Chancellor of the time, Tarsus Valorum - it was necessary to keep the Jedi from being rulers of the Republic rather than servants of the Republic.
Exactly - the Jedi Order made that connection to the Republic long before the PT, back when it was the most practical (or indeed unavoidable) course of action. By the time of the Clone Wars, they were inextricably linked so it was too late for them to assert independence.
It's hard to say what would have happened if they had remained separate from the start. Would they have survived as an organisation? They certainly wouldn't have had the authority to carry out peacekeeping and diplomatic missions for a thousand years. It seems to be one of those 'damned if you do, damned if you don't situations'.
Serious question about: "The Revenge of the Sith"
So i got in to a huge fight with my best friend about a certain thing in the third prequel. In 1:19:02 Chancellor Palpatine says that "Once more the sith will rule the galaxy!" But my friend is being stubborn as hell and says that the sith have never ruler over the galaxy. Please use your immense knowledge base and disprove him. Thank you in advance!
Sorry for the bad spelling i wrote that in a hurry.
He said that the sith have never ruled over the galaxy and i think that is just wrong.
Please point out points in history where the sith ruled over tha galaxy.
Then...what does Sidious mean when he declares "The first Galactic Empire"?
Welcome to the Boards,
In the future, please edit the original comment instead of posting consecutively, thanks.
Technically, it's the first Galactic Empire. At least named as such.
But yes, it's another one of those EU "contradictions"...
Didn't Mace used that term when he showed up to arrest Palpatine?
Galactic Republic/Empire = modern times in the GFFA.
There has never been a galaxy-spanning empire before. All previous Sith empires were smaller, as they constantly fought against the larger Republic.