ST Rey vs Luke "touching" THE lightsabre

1: Get you minds out of the gutter!

2: What is the[most] plausible and "ret-connable" reasoning anyone has used to define conclusively why when Rey touched the lightsabre she gets a massive force vision and this that and the other -- yet when Luke touched it for the first time nothing remotely similar seems to have happened?

Thanks -- having absorbed the movie now for a couple months -- things are cropping up in my mind I'd like to put to rest

 

I hate to use this answer because of the mocking that has been thrown about, but to me it was "the will of the force." Luke didn't need guidance from the saber, as it was presented to him by Obi Wan with full intent of training him. Rey didn't want anything to do with the force, the jedi, etc; furthermore, she didn't know she was force sensitive. Just my $.02

 

Why do you keep wondering about Rey touching Luke's lightsaber? My goodness gracious!
My thoughts are psychometry. Perhaps this is one of Rey's Force abilities that "awakens" within her. I've only seen it touched upon with Quinlan Vos in TCW and the Dark Disciple novel. Perhaps the Lucas Storygroup was able to sneak that concept into the script.

 

Will of the force. And it's JJ riffing on Arthurian and other Northern European mythological motifs. Note that the saber is given to her by Maz (the Lady of the Lake), who holds onto it until she arrives, just as the Lady of the Lake held onto Excalibur. Then Rey, the rightful heir, pulls it from the snow (stone) at the end.

People say Abrams only derived from Star Wars, but that's not true. There are all kinds of influences on TFA that have their origins in older stories.

 

This. It has nothing to do with the lightsaber itself. This is the same reason that the lightsaber flies towards Rey's hand instead of Kylo's.

 

She actually hands it to Finn who wields it for a while... So if your Arthurian legend theory is correct, then which part of the legend is Finn mirroring?

 

LOVE this analysis.

An the other points are great too:

 

Who carries the sword for Arthur in the legend?

 

Hoping to not being taken as being flippant, my feeling on the difference was and is: so what? In ANH we have a degree of explanation about the Force and a degree of its manifestations. In ESB we begin to see more of these manifestations, and still more in ROTJ. There is no hard "Bible" for how the Force works - or its limitations - and in addition there is nothing that says previous to TFA we have been shown all that it can do or how it can be utilized.

The Force is calling to Rey in a manner that is not the same as Luke. The dynamic of Rey's situation is quite dissimilar from that of Luke's, and what appears to be the now introduced psychometry is no more astonishing than previously shown telekinesis, bioelectricity, mind control, and telepathy. It makes the story work, and simply because we have not seen the Force work this way before and see inconsistency relative to the application of its aspects, does not invalidate its legitimacy.

 

Um -- no one in this thread has said otherwise. My question is not on how to "ignore" it - but how others have chose to "explain" it.

 

Sorry if I was not clear. This is my comment on the OP. I tried to be careful to note my opinion, and did not intend to be commenting on the opinions of others. My opinion is that I have no difficulty with Luke not getting a vision, and Rey getting one. The post was to explain why I did not have an issue with Luke not getting a vision. However I see what you are looking for now.

 

Because Luke's Force powers hadn't yet "awakened" at the time he first touched the saber. Rey's already did.

Of course this would be under the assumption that it was her Force powers which gave her that ability (the psychometry stuff that I've seen mentioned around the board), albeit hers was still raw so the stuff she saw and heard were quite confusing.

 

Yea - all good suggestions. As we know so little of Luke's formative years and he was obviously somewhat sheltered by Owen & Beru by comparison -- he might not have shown his "awakening" in the same way.

I still prefer the "Obi-Wan" was there and the Force's will took different paths in different situations. Sprinkle that in with Psychometry -- and I'm now satisfied

 

This all has to do with the EU.

 

Yeah, of our three leads (Anakin in the PT, Luke in the OT, and Rey in the ST), Luke had the most comfortable and stable upbringing by far it seems. His biggest problem was being bored of farm life and wanting adventure. And perhaps that played a role in both Anakin and Rey's abilities emerging faster. They both had to learn survival instincts earlier, by necessity. And that translates into their "awakenings" as well, they're quicker on the uptake than Luke was at first in part because of this,

 

I think the reason this happened is because of the possibility that Rey has already had some Jedi training. Luke had none, when he first held the lightsaber. Perhaps it was the Force calling to Rey to remind her of what she's forgotten...?

Or perhaps she's simply way more powerful (potentially) than Luke or Anakin were? I wouldn't mind that...

Either way I'm pretty convinced at this point that Rey has had SOME Force training at some point-and maybe just forgotten...

Heck, for all we know it's because the lower catacombs of Maz's castle were strong in the Force. Maybe it was once a Jedi Temple or something-and was a place strong in the Force, inducing her vision-much like the Dagobah cave...

 

Yeah I mean there are people in real life that are just more naturally gifted in certain things (be it athletics, or art, or music, etc) than most people. And we've seen that some Force Users are more powerful than others as well. So if that's the explanation for it, and there's a compelling arc for her, then fine. I'm cool with that.

 

It's not a one-to-one parallel. It's a riff on the legend. The difference between Rey and Arthur is that Rey rejects the sword, while Arthur does not. But eventually, Rey claims it, just as Arthur did.