"STAR WARS: CLONE WARS" QUESTION

I have a question concerning the animated "Star Wars: Clone Wars" series. Why in the series (as well as in "Attack of the Clones") does C-3PO refer to Padmé Naberrie Skywalker as "Miss Padme" instead of "Mistress Padme" while in the Classic Trilogy he refers to Leia Organa as "Mistress Leia?"

 

Because MISTRESS can be defined meaning "an adulterous woman".

**Meaning of MISTRESS**

Pronunciation: 'mistris

1.-[n] a woman master who directs the work of others

2.-[n] an adulterous woman; a woman who has an ongoing extramarital sexual relationship with a man

3.-[n] a woman schoolteacher


Look it up. It's true!

 

Because in the OT, Leia is sort of a "Master" to the droids, while in the PT and CW cartoons, the relationship does not appear to be the same.

 

Actually, she was a "master" of the Rebellion.

The droids had former masters each (3PO=Captain Antilles and R2=Obiwan).

 

The droids had former masters each (3PO=Captain Antilles and R2=Obiwan).

You don't know that R2 was owned by Obi Wan. C3Po says "OUR last master was Captain Antilles", refering to both himself and R2. Furhtermore, Obi Wan says he doesn't remember owning a droid. I think that R2 was just saying that as part of his "mission".

As to the question at hand, I don't know. Perhaps C3P0 only says that to his ownders. He wasn't really owned by Padme during AOTC or during the CLONEWARS. She owned R2, but Anakin owned C3P0 because he built him. Do we know what 3P0 says in RotS? Perhaps this would make a good thread in the RotS forum.

 

The question at hand was already answered...

>>Because MISTRESS can be defined meaning "an adulterous woman"<<

And you know that the America of these days cannot have any of that!