Lit What makes a Character that Character; Reboots, Reimagines and Recanonization

So, is there much chance at this point that the Mandalorians of The Mandalorian might start drifting closer to their pre-2010 counterparts? Possibly an isolated group on a planet like, say, Ordo, where Mando'a is still prevalent. We have still yet to explore that society properly outside of The Clone Wars, and I feel like we haven't seen Favreau and Filoni's version of the culture to the fullest extent.

 

Palpatine IS all the Sith in RoS, if Revan didn't die a Sith and end up being added to the crowd of Sith Lords that ended up in Palpatine's conciousness then I don't see why he'd have a Sith legion in his name in RoS.

 

Even if Sidious was literally meaning that he was "all the Sith", that would likely only mean from Bane onwards. Naming a Sith Legion after a legendary Sith Lord doesn't necessarily mean anything for Revan, especially considering reference books are often contradicted.

Those Sith Legions may never be referenced again, they're nothing more than easter eggs unless another author decides they want to run with it in the future.

 

If he only meant the bare few that the Rule of Two added to the Sith in 1000 years before Palpatine, I don't think those tribunes in the movie would have even manage to be full. Bane in terms of galactic history is very recent. Exegol is one the earliest Sith bastions.

 

Palpatine meant whatever future writers decide he meant. It's extremely open to interpretation with one so untrustworthy as him. It could come down to the mechanics of one needing to kill the other in some sort of chain (which is why it would only be from Bane onwards). There is no "right answer" yet.

Nor does the Visual Dictionary reference necessarily mean anything for Revan. Canon Sith might separate Darth Revan from his light side identity, just as Vader and Anakin are often treated like distinct individuals. The people writing Revan's story aren't going to constrain themselves because of a mention in a Visual Dictionary - especially if it's easy to retcon.

 

Rise of Skywalker the movie proper is a bit more then a Visual Directory mention and it's entirely likely that when they write the earlier stories about the Sith, they use what was established in the movies rather then reject it outright. I don't imagine Revan will be the most ancient Sith chronologically that they'll tackle when they tackle him.

 

The Revan Legion wasn't in the movie proper. The only aspect of what we are discussing that actually came from the movie is Palpatine saying the phrase "I am all the Sith".

 

I think him meaning that he was "all the Sith" from Bane onwards makes a bit more sense, as in the Sith Lords transferred their spirits to their Apprentices and became "one", making the Apprentice much more powerful once they were beaten by them, still, Sidious could have still siphoned the spirits of all Darksiders that were on Chaos thanks to Exegol, but that's kind of a wild theory.

I do like the prospect that, in a One Canon Universe, my Sith Inquisitor and Jedi Knight's rivalry from SWTOR got finally resolved on-screen due to Rey and Sidious channeling all the Jedi and Sith from the past

 

I mean since all other Sith are dead he could also mean "I am the only one left". It's no "I am the Darkside"

 

True, but given Rey's response and what it meant, plus the many implications with Sidious' spirit taking over Rey's body, along with "The power in me" part, i think the interpretation for it to mean that he has the Ancient Sith's spirits is more plausible.

And yeah, "i am the Dark Side!" is better.

 

Let's say canon Darth Bane existed and created the Rule of Two earlier than in Legends (say, 1500 BBY), and the Sith Extinction of ~1000 BBY was the supposed death of the two Bane-ite Sith Lords at the time. What would that contradict in canon?

(This may not be the thread for this discussion, but I'm curious)

 

So you would just have Bane set the rule of two and NOT the plan?

 

I kinda like that. Bane to me never felt like someone who would go fo "A Grand Plan" so much as just for a rule of Two.

Like Bane is smart but I'm not sure if he's super smart in that way.

Zanna always felt more like a true Bane Era Sith with the deceit and what not.

 

Not necessarily. The Jedi could know the Sith are out there, but not who they are. That said, the Jedi knowing about the Rule of Two makes far more sense if it pre-dates the "extinction", and I think that was the original intention. The EU is what placed Bane 1000 years before the films.

 

Why do you feel that way?

 

~2000-1000 BBY could consist of the Jedi being “whodunit” detectives where their job is to identify and arrest Sith Lords. If the Sith had used factions such as The Mandalorians to conquer the galaxy in the past, the Jedi may have thought that the Separatists were another such faction and hence supported the Republic war effort.

The TPM novelization says that Darth Bane “emerged from his concealment”.

 

Because the way Bane is portrayed in the books make him more of a brute then a schemer.

 

Well I'm pretty sure its been established that the Sith occupied Coruscant around a thousand years before TPM.
That at least makes this possibility somewhat more awkward to implement.

 

Maybe “the Sith” were just the top two leaders of the faction that occupied Coruscant.

 

Where was it established? If the Sith controlled Coruscant at that point, that doesn't necessarily preclude there being two of them. We know that the Mandalorians were there at the time, they stole the Darksaber back, perhaps they were working with the Sith in canon.

 

Maybe it was a source book somewhere? I know it was brought up around the time the Propaganda book came out, where Valorum is planning the Republics Millenium celebration. It was extrapolated from the unfinished TCW arcs where they have a Sith shrine on the planet.

Don't recall the specifics, though I seem to remember it being stated that the recapture of Coruscant was one of the markers for the end of the Sith War and the reestablishment of the Republic. Maybe it could work, as you stated above if they had other factions under their command such as the Mandalorians they could certain occupy planets.

Though it still feels awkward to me, can't put my finger out it but I could swear that the Sith existed in larger numbers before that time in canon too. Maybe I'm just blurring lines.

 

In this:

 

Thanks for the info. I suppose the Sith really ought to be involved in the fall of the Old Republic, and that coincides with their "extinction", but I think having the Rule of Two be older would be an interesting change which could work well.

What if canon KotOR were to be about the fall of the Old Republic and the Sith ~1000 BBY?

 

AOTC established that the formation of “the” Republic coincided with the “extinction” of the Sith. In ROTS, Windu says, “The oppression of the Sith will never return,” Sidious says, “Once more, the Sith will rule the galaxy”, and in the screenplay, Obi-Wan says, “The Sith rule the galaxy like they did before the Republic,” hence the book I linked to says that the Sith took control of Coruscant. Nonetheless, there’s no reason they couldn’t have already been following the Rule of Two.

What do you mean by “canon KOTOR”?

 

That was me making the (bold) assumption that the rumoured KotOR remake a) exists and b) will be considered canon.